bank

Attention over time

7-day rolling share of analyzed posts/comments mentioning this entity · 90 daily points ending 2026-08-14

Final complete day: 2026-08-14. Attention was 0.3% — this entity appeared in 20 of 6,299 analyzed posts/comments in the seven days ending that day (24 mentions).

Each point is a seven-day rolling window of complete UTC days; a point is comparable only when at least 100 analyzed posts or comments fall inside it. A day with no analyzed records counts as zero; missing coverage is marked and never shown as zero. The series ends at the latest complete analyzed day — it never extends into the current incomplete day. How attention is measured.

Recent mentions

1. 2026-08-13 02:15 UTCComment

   No strawman here, you made statements stating the bank owns the house. We were just pointing out that you were wrong but you are such an insufferable ass you couldn't see that. SO please do not reply, but I am thinking your arrogance won't allow you to let this go.

2. 2026-08-12 16:37 UTCComment

   The bank doesn't "own" the house nor do they buy it. They loan the money and have a lien against the deed. The owner is the person who actually buys it with the money loaned by the bank.

3. 2026-08-12 14:32 UTCComment

   Mom and the bank own the house......he owns nada.

4. 2026-08-12 14:30 UTCComment

   The deed would currently be in the MIL's name with a bank lien, which means she cannot sell the house, she can only return it to the bank. There are likely 2 scenarios here: 1. MIL bought the house for her son because he didn't have the credit. 2. The house was purchased long before, the MIL lived in the house and can no longer afford it, so let her son and his wife move in without transferring the deed. All of this depends on what agreement was made between the son and his mother. But, just from what the wife says, it seems they have fully treated the situation as them being owners of the house until costly repairs came about and now she wants to avoid using her personal funds to pay for anything. This is the kind of thing that tears couples apart. So, we can't make assumptions when responding. And we've all heard the addage, "Possession is 9/10ths of the Law." That is actually a legal consideration. The only response, until the wife gives more pertinent information, is that she needs to talk to her husband about her desire to not pay for these repairs. Or suck it up and stop trying to pass the buck.

5. 2026-08-12 14:14 UTCComment

   No. That is incorrect. The purchasing party does not own the house until they have paid off the mortgage. A mortgage is nothing more than s specialized loan used to buy a house. The loan is not actually given to the purchase. The bank buys the house and loans the cost of the house to the purchaser that is what the purchaser is paying off. That is why the purchaser can't sell the house until the mortgage is paid off. They can only return it to the bank (who puts the house back on the market to hopefully collect the remaining unpaid loan). I understand you may not have a firm grasp of real estate issues, but you can't make assumptions about who owns what. If you are financing something, you do not own it until you've paid it off. Period. End of story. "People paying the mortgage usually have an ownership stake in the property" Your entire post is full of fallacy, but this one contradicts your whole argument. You are arguing that the mother owns the property, but she doesn't pay anything on the mortgage. So how does she have an ownership stake? Please don't talk about things you clearly know nothing about. Real Estate legalities don't run off feelings.